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Post by huri on Apr 3, 2004 12:41:53 GMT -5
what was he hiding and did he have to destroy them? this means that there were other korans not one.
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Post by 000 on Apr 7, 2004 9:26:18 GMT -5
Haha! before you insert your own conclusions, please authenticate your views from an authentic source. They were not different in their texts. The reason was to discard all those which were not authenticated from govt. Thus it served to maintain an authentic copoy of Quran then to have many Quran with typo errors. Read some authentic history source and you will know the whole truth. Hmmm! Some thing familiar here
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Post by huri on Apr 8, 2004 4:30:05 GMT -5
you have given me a self-contradictory statement: if they were the same then they should have ALL been kept. If they were different, well that says a lot about your "inspited" scripture..
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Post by badman on Jun 30, 2004 13:58:09 GMT -5
probably becasue they couldn't check them beacause the Qurans all ahd to be 100% correct and not even one full stop wrong so it would be too difficult to check them but ones authoriesd by the govermants were already known to be correct so they were kept just to be safe.
and also it would be immpossible for the Quran to be changed as by then thousands of people had already COMPLETEY memorised the Quran.
and that is another miracle in its self. my principle can memorise 32 pages of the Quran a day, and he has a bad memory aswell!!
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Post by muslima on Aug 14, 2004 14:32:17 GMT -5
salam
waaat? the ottomans did not destory copies of the Quran ,astagfirrulah. what are you ppl playing at. it was an ISLAMIC EMPIRE, not a perfect one but still an islamic one.
ma'salama
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